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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 05:11

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Why are fewer English people going to their local pubs for a drink? Are they aware that many pubs are shutting down due to lack of customers?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Did Muhammad Ali ask Dundee to cut his gloves off before Eddie Futch stopped the fight in Thrilla in Manila?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Can someone fall in love with a person they have never met in person, but only through thoughts and imagination?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.